What does “only begotten” mean in Jesus case? “Monogenēsmay be used as an adjective. For example, monogenēs pais means only child, only legitimate child or special child. Monogenēs may also be used on its own as a noun. For example, o monogenēs means “the only one”, or “the only legitimate child” . . . Some interpretations of the word “unique” attempt to preclude birth, yet the full Greek meaning is always in the context of a child (genes). A unique child is also a born child, hence the full meaning of the word “begotten” as found in John 3:16 (KJV), for example”—Wikipediaread more
Many Christians have been taught and believe that Jesus Christ is Almighty God because he actually forgave sins while he was on earth. Does forgiving sins mean that Jesus is God? Let’s analyze the scriptures objectively, and see for ourselves.
Mark 2:5-7 – “When Jesus saw their faith, he saw to the paralytic, ‘Child, your sins are forgiven.’ Now some of the scribes were sitting there asking themselves, ‘ Why does this man speak that way? He is blaspheming. Who but God alone can forgive sins?” (NAB). Does this assertion by Jesus’ enemies that, ‘only God can forgive sins’, mean that Jesus is God? Notice next what term Jesus uses to describe himself:read more
Jesus is the Son of God. But is he “God the Son”?
A discussion with a Trinitarian about whether Jesus Christ is “God the Son” follows. “
T” stands for the Trinitarian and “BA” stands for us at Bible Authenticity.
T—The author of BA believes the Word was a created being, not a man or angel, but some being not identified.
BA—He is Biblically identified. “Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God” (John 20:31 NASB). T- We are talking about the pre-incarnate Jesus Christ. You said the Word was created by God before creation.
BA—Since the Bible says he is “the firstborn of every creature” (Col 1:15 KJV), “whose origin is from of old, from ancient days” (Micah 5:2 NRSV).
T—I say and John 1:1 says He was God, therefore not a created being.
BA—The Bible says Jesus is “the only begotten God was is in the bosom of his Father”, but is not the “God” that “no one has seen” (John 1:T18 NASB). Being “begotten” means his life had a beginning, therefore he was created.read more
Can Jesus Christ, the Son of God, Be God’s Servant?
Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is said by many to be Almighty God, “God the Son,” the second person of the Trinity. However, Jesus Christ, the Messiah, is mentioned in the Bible as being God’s “servant.” In view of the claims that Jesus is Almighty God, how can he be God’s servant? First, let’s look at some of the claims about him:
“Peter’s sermon identifies Jesus with the ‘I Am’ of Israel’s history”—The Word In Life Study Bible, page 1928, citing Acts 3:11-26 as “proof.”read more
Ultimate Authority – Is it the Father, Jesus, holy Spirit, or Trinity?
Who is the ultimate authority? Most Churches believe, preach and teach the following:
“In this Trinity . . . None is greater, or less, than another. But the whole three Persons are . . . coequal”—Athanasian Creed
The Trinity is implied to be the ultimate authority in the famous creed quoted above. Not all Christians are in agreement about the roles of God the Father, Jesus, the holy Spirit and the Trinity. Some say God is the ultimate authority, some say Jesus is the ultimate authority, and some say the Trinity is the ultimate authority, and a few even say the holy Spirit is the ultimate authority . Some say they are equal. And some say Jesus is Almighty God. Red-letter Bibles put words the editors think were spoken by Jesus in red, which implies that Jesus’ words are more important than God’s words. But what does the Bible say? Let’s examine some scriptures to find the answer.
“All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me…” – by whom?
“He has given him authority to judge because he is the Son of Man” (John 5:27). “I am not here on my own authority but he who sent me is true.” (John 7:28) Jesus plainly states his authority came from his Father, and that he didn’t come on his own authority, but God sent him.
“If anyone’s will is to do God’s will, he will know whether the teaching is from God or whether I am speaking on my own authority.” (John 7:17 ESV).”I do not speak on my own authority.” (John 14:10)read more
Are God, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit a Trinity in 2 Thessalonians?
In the Bible book of 2 Thessalonians, the Apostle Paul speaks of God, Jesus Christ, and the holy Spirit. If Paul and/or the early Christians believed Jesus is God or part of a Trinity, we should be able to find evidence of this in the New Testament letters. But is this the case in 2 Thessalonians? Is the Trinity in 2 Thessalonians? Let’s examine some of the pertinent verses to find out.
Paul speaks of both God, Jesus, and the holy Spirit in 2 Thessalonians. But does he believe God is a Trinity?
Is the Trinity in 1 Thessalonians? In the Bible book of 1 Thessalonians, are God and Jesus and spoken of as separate and distinct? Is the holy Spirit a person? Let’s examine these questions in some of the verses in 1 Thessalonians.
Is the Trinity in 1 Thessalonians? God and Jesus are spoken of as separate and distinct in 1 Thessalonians
“In God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.” (1 Thessalonians 1:1) Here, God and Jesus are referred to as two separate and distinct individuals. Why are they not “in” the holy Spirit, if it is a person? Why aren’t they in the Trinity?
This article is part of our series about what is stated concerning God, Jesus and the holy Spirit, and whether they together comprise a Trinity, in the various books of the New Testament. We will examine the four chapter book of Philippians. Notice the distinctive relationship between God and Jesus throughout this book of Philippians, especially the superior role of God compared to Jesus. What does it say about the holy Spirit? Is the Trinity in Philippians?
Is the Trinity found in Philippians? The superior role of God compared to Jesus is evident from the Bible book of Philippians
“To all God’s holy people in Christ Jesus at Philippi.” (Philippians 1:1) Notice they are God’s, not Christ’s, holy people. God is always the one in control, and is using Christ to gather his people, which shows his superiority over Christ, and eliminates the equality aspect of the Trinity doctrine (John 14:28).
“Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ . . . God can testify how I long for all of you with the affection of Christ Jesus.” (Philippians 1:2,8) God and Jesus are presented as separate and distinct, not of the same “being”, “substance”, or “essence”. The holy Spirit, since it is not a person, does not give greetings. Neither does the Trinity, since it doesn’t exist.
“Filled with the fruit of righteousness that comes through Jesus Christ – to the glory and praise of God.” (Philippians 1:11) Fruitage from God flows through Jesus and brings glory and praise to God. God is presented is someone other than Jesus, and superior to Jesus (John 14:28), which doesn’t support the Trinity doctrine.
“Participation in the Spirit” (Philippians 2:1 ESV). Since some versions render this as “fellowship of the Spirit”, Trinitarians have claimed this means the holy Spirit is a person. However, the rendering “participation in the Spirit” is more accurate. We can’t participate in a person. But we can “have a share in his Spirit” (1 John 4:13 NJB). All this gives evidence that the holy Spirit isn’t a person. Without the holy Spirit being a person, the Trinity doctrine collapses.
“Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who although he existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped.” (Philippians 2:6 LSB; NASB).
“Who, although he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. Rather he emptied himself, taking the form of a slave, coming in human likeness, and found human in appearance”—Philippians 2:6,7 NAB
“What the man Jesus refused to grasp at to attain divinity . . . Jesus, though . . . in the form of God (Gn 1:26-27) did not reach out for equality with God, in contrast with the first Adam in Gn 3:5-6”—NAB note
“Ureil ben-Mordechai[1] points out that the Greek negative in this verse (ouk) is not attached to the verb (hegesato) but rather to the noun harpagmon. That means the reading of this verse should be “counted not something to be grasped,” instead of “not counted something to be grasped.” Let me make the difference clearer. The standard Christian translation of this Greek phrase suggests that Yeshua did not consider equality something to be grasped. But the actual Greek text reads, “counted equality not something that could be grasped.” In other words, if the negative particle ouk is tied to the noun rather than the verb, the implication is the Yeshua saw equality with God as something unattainable. Do you realize what this means? It means that this verse does not say that Yeshua gave up equality with God voluntarily because it did not serve the purposes of the Messiah. It says that Yeshua never aspired to be equal with God because equality with God is not possible.”—Skip Moen, Phd
Since many translations render Philippians 2:6 with Trinitarian bias, let’s look at some other accurate translations of Philippians 2:6:
“He was in the form of God, yet he laid no claim to equality with God, but made himself nothing, assuming the form of a slave. Bearing the human likeness”—Philippians 2:6,7 REB
“who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped”—ESV
“Who, being in the form of God, did not count equality with God something to be grasped”—NJB
“Who, existing in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped”—BSB; BLB
“who, although existing in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped”—LSB
“who, being in the form of God, counted it not a prize to be on an equality with God”—ERV
“In God’s own form existed he, and shared with God equality, deemed nothing needed grasping.”—LSV
“Who, existing in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped”—MSB
“who though he existed in the form of God did not regard equality with God as something to be grasped”—NET
“who, existing in the form of God, did not consider equality with God a thing to be grasped”—NHB
“who, existing in the form of God, didn’t consider equality with God a thing to be grasped”—WEB
“who, being in the form of God, thought [it] not something to be seized to be equal to God”—LSV
“who, though he was in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be seized”—CPDV
Being,”in the form of God”, means that Jesus is not God! Someone who already has something does not have to ‘grasp’ for it. Jesus would not even think about trying to be equal to God. Christians are to have the same attitude of humility. Obviously, Jesus is separate from, and inferior to, God. Philippians 2:5,6 flatly debunks the equality aspect of the Trinity doctrine.
“He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. For this reason also, God highly exalted him.” (Philippians 2:8,9 NASB) God is clearly shown to be someone other than Christ. Jesus’ obedience bespeaks of his submission to his Father. His death means he is not God, and not eternal, since he was not in existence while he “was dead” (Revelation 1:18). The scriptures make clear that “Yahweh . . . God . . . never dies” (Habakkuk 1:12 NJB). God, the superior one, highly exalted Jesus, not the other way around. Thus, three Trinitarian pillars of Jesus being God, eternal, and equal are eliminated by these scriptures.
Philippians 2:10,11a – “At the name of Jesus every knee should bow . . . and every tongue should acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord” (NIV). Trinitarians often stop their quote of the scripture at this point, and use this to “prove” that Jesus is God. Here is a typical example of a Trinitarian claim:
“God the Father stated, “To me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear” (Isaiah 45:23). The same exact description is also applied to Jesus (Philippians 2:10-11). This means that both the Father and the Son are Yahweh.”read more
The Trinity is said to be the main doctrine of Christianity. Verses from Hebrews chapter 1 are often used to support the doctrine. However, there are some very valid and legitimate questions about what the verses in Hebrews actually say about the Trinity issue that need to be answered.
Hebrews 1:1 – “In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways” (NIV). Who is the “God” mentioned here?
Hebrews 1:2 – “in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things and through whom he made the universe” (NIV).
·Who is “his Son” that God has spoken by?
·Who appointed Jesus to be “heir”?
·What does it mean that God made the universe through Jesus?
Hebrews 1:3 – How does being “the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being” make Jesus equal to God?
Hebrews 1:5 – Who made the Father-Son declaration? Who decided this relationship? Explain how this makes the Father and Jesus equal?
Hebrews 1:8 – Does “about the Son he says, ‘Your throne, God'” make Jesus equal to the Father? If so, then what does it make the human king about which it was originally said at Psalm 45:6?